1. Name the of the cell structure that fits the statement.
2. Define the following terms:
3. What are the specialized cells that move water from the roots to the leaves of a plant?
4. In the early 1900s, a Dutch researcher named Frits Went confirmed that there was a chemical produced in the stem tips of growing seedlings that stimulated growth. He named this chemical:
5. A number of processes and forces are necessary for moving water and nutrients from the soil around the plant to the leaves. In order, these processes are:
6. Many plants have adaptations to help them survive in certain climates. The cactus is one such plant. Its leaves have been modified into spines in an effort to:
7. Plants are able to respond to stimuli from around them. What are these responses called?
8. One major difference between xylem cells and phloem cells is:
9. Describe three things you could do to increase this movement?
10. The transport of materials through the membrane, with no requirement for energy is called?
11. The transport of materials by proteins through a cell membrane, and against a concentration gradient is called?
12. What is the energy source for movement against a concentration gradient?
13. Cell membranes only allow certain materials through. What is the name of these types of membranes?
14. Why do trees that have their outer bark and xylem damaged quite often die?
15. The transport of water up the plant is aided by root pressure. How is this pressure created?
16. In 1880, Charles Darwin and his son devised an experiment in which they used oat seedlings. They set up four treatment groups of developing seedlings. In the first group, they removed the tip, in the second, they covered the tip with foil, in the third, they covered the base of each seedling with foil, and they left the fourth group untouched. What were they trying to test?
17. There are many reasons that a plant might need to be able to sense where "up" is. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential reasons?
18. Discuss what would occur if plants had no hormones called auxins. Include the effects from gravity, the sun and from water.
19. What is the magnification of a microscope with two lenses if each lens enlarges an image 10X?
20. An ocular lens on a microscope has a magnification of 10X. The objective lenses on the microscope have magnifications of 4X at low power, 10X at medium power, and 40X at high power.
21. Water has two special properties that make it possible for plants to transport water up great distances within their vascular tissues. One property is __________________, which is a tendency of water molecules to stick to each other, and the other is __________________, which is a tendency for water molecules to stick to other surfaces.
22. What would happen to an animal cell that is placed in a :
1. Define the following terms:
2. For each of the following, indicate the monomer/subunit and the polymer.
3. Enzymes function as catalysts, speeding up biological reactions.
4. The liver produces an emulsifying agent
5. Fill in the table below.
| Test | Molecule tested for | Positive test | Negative Test |
|---|---|---|---|
| Lugol's Iodine | |||
| Sudan IV | |||
| Benedicts Solution | |||
| Translucence | |||
| Biuret's SOlution |
1. Define the following types of consumers and provide 2 examples of each
2. Discuss the importance of photosynthesis in energy flow
3. What is the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
4. State the two laws of thermodynamics and their relevance/application to energy flow in an ecosystem.
5. Describe the three types of ecological pyramids and provide an example in an ecosystem context.
6. Discuss the following terms and their relevance to this topic
7. Fill in the blanks
8. Describe the role of each of the following terms in the development of ground water
9. What is ozone?
10. What is the role of ozone in the biosphere?
11. What gases cause holes in the ozone layer?
12. What organic molecules in the body of plants and animals contain nitrogen?
13. How do plants obtain the nitrogen they need to produce protein?
14. How do animals obtain their protein?
15. In the process of nitrification, bacteria break down organic wastes into what soluble molecule that can be absorbed by plant roots?
16. In the process of nitrogen fixation, what is the role of bacteria living in the root of legumes?
17. Explain how energy, matter, and the productivity of ecosystems are interrelated.
18. Define homeostasis in respect to the closed system of the Biosphere.
19. Explain the influence on atmospheric composition of the equilibrium between the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
20. Discuss the influence of human activities on the biosphere.
21. Explain the changes in the composition of Earth’s atmosphere from past to present.
1. Discuss how ecotones can reduce the possibility of species extinction.
2. Define the term 'Carrying Capacity'.
3. List four examples of limiting factors for population growth.
4. State the Law of Tolerance.
5. State the Law of Minimums.
6. With examples, discuss density-dependent and density-independent factors affecting changes in populations.
7. Which of the following might best explain the disappearance of all life on earth? If all the
8. If decomposers did not exist on the earth, the only method of recycling carbon would be by subjecting organic material to
9. An example of the primary consumers in a community are the
10. There are always fewer organisms at each higher step of the food pyramid because
11. If carbon dioxide were withdrawn from the biosphere, which organism would first experience negative effects?
12. Which of the following statements best describes the work done by decomposers?
13. Which best represents the normal flow of energy in a food chain?
14. In the pyramid of numbers there will always be
15. Which organisms are most immediately essential to the existence of primary consumers?
16. If the nitrogen fixing and nitrifying bacteria in the soil were destroyed, a probable result would be a reduction in available
17. Energy and nutrients enter a community by way of the
18. A sequence of species through which the organic molecules in a community pass is called a
19. A consumer whose carbon atoms have already passed through three species is a
20. About how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?
21. About how much of the chemical energy within producer tissues become chemical energy within herbivore tissue
22. An ecological pyramid of biomass is a representation of the ecosystem’s
23. An ecological pyramid of biomass is often an inverted pyramid in which of the following ecosystems?
24. The largest reservoir of phosphorus in the biosphere is the
25. The main nitrogen reservoir in the biosphere is the
26. An ecosystem is a
27. Select True or False
1. Select True or False
2. A rat loses its tail. Those who believe that the rat’s offspring will be born without tails are following the doctrine of
3. In man, the appendix and ear muscles are examples of
4. Most fossils are found in
5. A turtle has a trait that gives it a survival advantage. Over time, the percentage of this trait in the population increased. This is probably due to
6. Darwin described natural selection as
7. Lamarck believed certain parts of the body get larger and more complex through the generations because they.
8. If we assume that species do not change, we would expect
9. Evolution can occur more rapidly among organisms which reproduce sexually than among organisms which reproduce asexually because
10. A new species is formed when
11. A large number of dark and light forms of moths were captured and marked for identification. 488 dark moths and 496 light moths were released. 34 dark moths and 62 light moths were recaptured. Which of the following would be the most reasonable assumption?
1. Explain, in general terms, how energy is absorbed by pigments, transferred through the reduction of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP) to NADPH, and then transferred as chemical potential energy to ATP by chemiosmosis.
2. Describe where in the chloroplast the light dependent processes occur.
3. Explain, in general terms, how the products of the light-dependent reactions, NADPH and ATP, are used to reduce carbon in the light-independent reactions for the production of glucose
4. Describe where in the chloroplast these light dependent processes occur.
5. The cellular transport process by which carbon dioxide enters a leaf (and by which water vapor and oxygen exit) is ___.
6. The photosynthetic process removes ___ from the environment.
7. The process of splitting water to release hydrogens and electrons occurs during the _____ process.
8. The process of fixing carbon dioxide into carbohydrates occurs in the ____ process.
9. Carbon dioxide enters the leaf through ____.
10. The photosynthetic pigment that is essential for the process to occur is ___.
11. The organic molecule produced directly by photosynthesis is:
12. Which of the following creatures would not be an autotroph?
13. The process by which most of the world's autotrophs make their food is known as ____.
14. The process of ___ is how ADP + P are converted into ATP during the Light dependent process.
14. Once ATP is converted into ADP + P, it must be ____.
15. A heterotroph gets its carbon from
16. The colors of light in the visible range (from longest wavelength to shortest) are ___.
17. Generally speaking, the longer the wavelength of light, the ___ the available energy of that light.
18. Photosynthetic autotrophs get their energy from
19. When a pigment reflects red light, _____.
20. Chlorophyll a absorbs light energy in the ____color range.
21. A photosystem is ___.
22. The fluid-filled area of the chloroplast is the ___.
23. The chloroplasts of plants are most close in size to __.
24. Which of these photosynthetic organisms does not have a chloroplast?
25. An autotroph is an organism that
26. An autotroph gets its carbon from
27. A heterotroph is an organism that gets its energy from
28. The chloroplast contains all of these except ___.
29. The pigment molecules of a chlorplast are located
30. In a plant cell, the light reactions of photosynthesis take place in the
31. In a plant cell, the light independent reactions of photosynthesis take place in the
32. Which of the following colors of light work(s) best for photosynthesis?
33. Which of the following colors of light is (are) the least effective in photosynthesis
34. The red, orange, and yellow colors of autumn leaves are caused by light reflected from
35. How many carbon atoms are there in a molecule of RuBP?
36. A source of protons for the proton gradient within a chloroplast is
37. When sunlight is on the chloroplast, pH is lowest in the
38. In photosynthesis, energy for attaching phosphate to ADP in photosystem II comes directly from
39. The molecule in the Calvin-Benson cycle that combines with carbon dioxide is
40. The individual flattened stacks of membrane material inside the chloroplast are known as ___.
41. The section of the electromagnetic spectrum used for photosynthesis is ___.
42. Plants store glucose as
19. If all of green plants were to suddenly disappear, which of the following substances normally found in the atmosphere would be first to be used up?
20. Which of the following occurs during the light-independent reaction of photosynthesis?
1. The function of cellular respiration is to
2. The term anaerobic means
3. Which of the following processes makes direct use of oxygen?
4. How many molecules of oxygen gas (O2) are used during the glycolysis of one glucose molecule”
5. During glycolysis, glucose is split into
6. When oxygen is not available to a muscle cell, NADH formed during glycolysis does not pass electrons to the electron transport system. Instead it passes hydrogen atoms to
7. Which one of the following processes releases a carbon dioxide molecule?
8. How many carbon atoms are in a citric acid molecule, the molecule formed when acetyl Co A enters the Krebs Cycle?
9. At the end of the Krebs cycle, most of the energy removed from the glucose molecule has been transferred to
10. In the electron transport system, the final acceptor of electrons is
11. The atom within each cytochrome molecule that aids in electron transport is
12. In aerobic cellular respiration, most of the ATP is synthesized during
13. The free energy change from the conversion of one molecule of glucose to six molecules of carbon dioxide is -686 kcal/mol, yet only about 266 kcal/mol of this is captured within ATP molecules. The rest is
14. Glycolysis takes place
15. The Krebs cycle and electron transport take place
16. The inner membrane of a mitochondrion is very selective about what it allows to leave the organelle. One molecule that regularly passes out of a mitochondrion is
17. Within the mitochondrion, the proton gradient develops across the
18. The function of the mitochondrial cristae is to
19. For an animal cell, the main advantage of aerobic cellular respiration over lactic acid fermentation is that
1. Select True or False
2. Match the description in the term listed from A to J with the correct description below
3. Starting from and ending with the heart, trace the blood flow through the human circulatory system by numbering the following in the correct order (1 to 6).
4. Circulation - Fill in the blanks with the correct answers.
The heart beats regularly because it has its own pacemaker. The pacemaker is a small region of muscle called the ________________, or ______________ node. It is in the upper back wall of the right ______________. The _________________ node triggers an impulse that causes both atria to _________. Very quickly, the impulse reaches the _______________ or _____________ node at the bottom of the _____________ atrium. Immediately, the ________ node triggers an impulse that causes both ______________ to contract.
5. Starting from and ending with the right atrium, trace the flow of blood through the heart and body by numbering the following in the correct order (1 to 10).
6. What term best fits each of the following descriptions?
1. Why is it possible to breathe using the mouth when the nose is blocked
2. Explain why a person can swallow food even when they are in an upside down position.
3. Boiling affects enzyme-controlled reactions by
4. During an enzymatic reaction, the substrate bonds to the enzyme's
5. Hydrogen sulphide is harmful because it occupies the active sites of enzymes that function in the electron transfer chain. This chemical process is an example of
6. Competitive inhibitors prevent enzyme action by
7. Enzymes alter the rate of a reaction by
8. When a competitive inhibitor is added to an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, end products will be formed
9. A poison inhibits the activity of an enzyme involved in the breakdown of glucose in a cell. The poison may act by
10. Surgical removal of the human stomach would most directly affect the digestion of
11. In the human body, an accessory gland that, in part, stores nutrients, detoxifies the blood and regulates blood glucose levels is called the
12. The basic chemical process that occurs in the digestion of food molecules is
13. Chemical digestion begins in the
14. The digestive juice that contains enzymes capable of digesting carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins is
15. Bile salts are necessary for the optimum effectiveness of
16. Protein digestion begins in the
17. In human digestion, the correct sequence of processes is
18. The name and function of the enzyme found in saliva is
19. Lactose intolerance is a disorder in which a person is unable to digest the milk sugar lactose. A person with lactose intolerance most likely lacks an enzyme called
20. The anatomical structure of the digestive system includes the so-called accessory glands that pour secretions into the digestive system to facilitate digestion. The glands are
21. The pH of food entering the duodenum is changed from acidic to alkaline by
22. Which list of functions best describes those of the large intestine?
23. Which food would be hard to digest if a person's gall bladder were removed?
24. Vegetarians who avoid eating all meat and animal products have difficulty getting sufficient
25. A major function of the large intestine is
26. Villi are structural adaptations in the lining of the small intestine. Their function is to provide for the optimum
27. The stomach wall is protected against the action of its own digestive juices by the
28. The end-products of lipid digestion are
29. North Americans, whose diet is high in starches, sugars, and proteins, appear to have a high incidence of colon cancer, whereas Asians whose diet is high in cereal grains and vegetables have a much lower incidence of this cancer. Asians who move to North America become more prone to colon cancer than those in Asia. The best conclusion that can be drawn from this information is that
30. In enzyme is
31. The function of an enzyme is to
32. The enzyme sucrase acts on
33. Hydrogen cyanide binds to the active site of an enzyme that is part of the pathway that forms ATP in cells; in this way, it prevents the enzyme’s activity. Hence, hydrogen cyanide can best be described as a
34. An enzyme promotes a chemical reaction by
35. In feedback inhibition, a metabolic pathway is switched off by
36. Fill in the Blanks
A substance that accelerates a chemical reaction, but itself remains unchanged when the reaction is over, is a _________________. In living things, most of these substances are known as _______________.
A high fever is dangerous to a human because enzymes are __________________ by heat. This causes the shape of their ___________________ to change and therefore the enzyme can no longer function at optimum capacity.
A metabolic pathway is a sequence of ________________, in which each step is controlled by its own specific ______________.
Metabolism involves two kinds of processes: _____________ in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones, and _____________, in which larger molecules are built from smaller ones. During growth, the rate of the _______________ process exceeds the rate of the _______________ process.
37. Use the following terms
To Match the following statements
38. Select True or False
1. Select True or False
2. The kidney is divided into three distinct layers. These layers are the
3. The filtration-based coffee maker is similar to a process that occurs when
4. The process indicated in question 3 above occurs in the
5. The greatest amount of reabsorption of nutrients from the nephron filtrate occurs in the
6. The substance(s) in urine that is(are) similar to the coffee produced after filtration are water and
7. In a healthy person, plasma proteins are
8. A large amount of salt (sodium chloride) is reabsorbed by the kidney tubules due to the action of __________ which results in a __________ in the reabsorption of water
9. Which of the following substances would be found in the blood, but would not enter the Bowman’s capsule?
The following is a list of processes that occur in the formation and excretion of urine:
10. What is the correct sequence in which the above processes would occur?
11. The substances found in human blood that are similar to the coffee grounds in a coffee filter are
12. A substance that would normally be found in of the nephron, but not in the loop of Henle is
13. A substance normally found in the glomerulus of the nephron, but not in the Bowman's capsule is
Use the following list to answer the next question
14. The substance(s) that remain(s) in the blood after filtration has occurred is (are)
15. A patient with diabetes mellitus would have urine that has high concentrations of
16. The sequence of structures that a molecule of urea will pass through within a nephron is the
1. Muscle cells require energy. Which provides the greatest number of ATP’s?
2. The normal continuous unconscious contraction of muscle is described as
3. Which of the following statements is true?
4. _________ join muscle to bone. _______ join bone to bone.
5. Muscle is based upon a ‘sliding filament model’. The main sliding filaments are
6. Which element is essential for a muscle contraction?
7. Which filament must be moved away from the binding sites before a muscle contraction can
occur?1. Which statement correctly describes the control of the breathing rate?
2. A poisonous, odourless gas which interferes with ability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen is called
3. In treating victims of carbon monoxide poisoning, artificial respiration is first applied in the open air, followed by the administration of a mixture of 93% oxygen and 7% carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide
4. It is impossible to commit suicide by holding your breath because
5. To which part of the respiratory system is the epiglottis attached?
6. After being in a poorly ventilated room for an hour with many other students, a student noticed that his rate of breathing had increased. The most probable reason for this increase is that the
7. The structure which prevents food particles from entering the air passage is the
8. Which one of the following is the principal carrier of oxygen from the lungs to the body cells?
9. The increase in breathing rate during intensive muscular exercise is mainly due to the
10. Which of the following structures of the respiratory system are contained within the thorax?
11. The average vital capacity of adult human lungs is about
12. What structures in the respiratory system are directly connected by the bronchi?
13. How do the diaphragm and the rib cage function during exhalation?
14. Which structure of the air tube system contains the vocal cords?
15. In what location in the respiratory tract is air warmed, cleaned, and moistened?
Major Structures of Upper Respiratory System
16. Through what sequence of structures does air flow in order to reach the alveoli in the lungs?
17. Which of the following respiratory structures has walls that are one cell in thickness and a very rich supply of blood?
18. What is one thing that happens during inhalation?
19. The muscular action during inspiration is best illustrated as follows.
20. Oxygen is used by the human body during
21. The amount of carbon dioxide in inhaled air is 0.04% and the amount in exhaled air could be about
22. The substance found in the highest concentration in the plasma of the blood leaving the lungs is
23. What is the name of the process by which gases in the lung alveoli are exchanged with gases in the capillaries?
1. Select True or False
2. Antibodies stick to more that one antigen forming an antigen-antibody complex. The purpose of this is to
3. Hemoglobin is an iron-containing respiratory pigment found in
4. Blood is composed of
5. Which one of the following situations would be beneficial for the recipient?
6. If a mother is blood type A Rh- and her baby is blood type B Rh+, their blood types will be incompatible. This is because
7. Anemia is indicated in a patients blood sample when the levels of hemoglobin fall below 15 g/100mL. Normal hemoglobin levels are about 34 g/100mL. A symptom of anemia would be -
8. The body’s B-cells produce __________ which react to __________ on the surface of cells to begin the immune response.
9. After T-cells are produced, they migrate to the
1. Which gland produces a hormone that directly increases blood supply to skeletal muscles and increases the rate of contraction of heart muscle?
2. Which sequence illustrates a mechanism used by the body to control the blood glucose level?
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Diabetes insipidus is a disorder of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland or hypothalamus resulting in decreased secretion of a specific hormone. This disorder is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of urine and subsequent dehydration and thirst. A person with diabetes insipidus can be treated by inhaling a spray containing the hormone that is deficient. The spray is inhaled several times a day.
3. The inhaled spray would likely contain
Use the following information to answer the next two questions.
When the Chernobyl nuclear reactor in Ukraine melted down, clouds of radioactive material, including iodine, were released into the atmosphere. Iodine is actively absorbed by a certain gland in the body. Scientists were worried that the radioactive iodine would cause tumours in this gland. In an attempt to avoid this problem, people who lived near the reactor were given large doses of non-radioactive iodine.
4. How would the ingestion of large doses of non-radioactive iodine reduce a person’s chances of getting a tumor in a particular gland?
5. If a tumor caused increased secretion of thyroxine, which symptoms would likely be experienced by an affected person?
6. The pituitary hormone ACTH regulates the production of aldosterone by the cortex of the adrenal glands. A severe drop in ACTH levels would likely result in
7. A person who occasionally experienced paralysis was examined and found to have very low levels of potassium in the blood and other tissues. The paralysis likely resulted because of the inability of
8. Which of the following statements regarding pituitary hormones is false?
9. Androgens are produced by the _______.
10. One of the two hormones made by the pituitary that help regulate reproductive cells is luteinizing hormone. The other hormone is _______.
11. Calcium level in the blood is regulated by the:
12. Which one of the following is NOT typical of the changes that follow the binding of a hormone to its target cells:
13. In humans, when iodine levels are adequate, abnormally high TSH secretion would likely result in
14. During an emergency situation, the adrenal gland is stimulated to release a hormone that directly causes an increase in
15. A hormone that regulates glucose levels in the blood and a hormone that regulates Na+ in the blood and, indirectly, water reabsorption by the kidneys are, respectively,
16. A condition that results in an enlargement of the thyroid gland may be caused by a diet deficient in
17. The secretions from which of these glands differs between males and females?
18. The two regulatory systems of the body are the endocrine system and the _______.
19. Why can a single endocrine hormone produce a wider spread of responses in more of the body than a single nerve cell?
20. Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
21. Which of the following produce antagonistic results?
22. Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the following EXCEPT:
23. Estrogens and progesterone are produced by:
24. Failure of the pituitary to stop producing growth hormone after body growth is completed results in _______.
25. Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones; this type of stimulus is called:
26. Tropic hormones:
27. The body’s major metabolic hormone is released from the:
28. Damage to which of the following endocrine glands would most affect the reaction of the body to an emergency that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system?
29. If you drank a liter of water very quickly, the result would be
30. How is hormone secretion regulated?
31. Target cells for hypothalamic releasing hormones are in the
32. The posterior pituitary gland stores and secretes
33. What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid gland?
34. The release of cortisol is stimulated by
35. The release of thyroxine from the thyroid is directly regulated by
36. A characteristic symptom of hyperthyroidism, a disorder of the thyroid gland, is
37. Which of the following hormones plays a role in returning the salt concentration in the blood to homeostatic levels following heavy exercise?
38. Most of the endocrine system is regulated by:
39. Nervousness, increased body temperature, and increased blood-pressure are indications of _______.
40. The alpha cells of the pancreas secrete _______ which targets the _______.
41. The growth hormone produced by the pituitary gland is known as _______.
42. The rate of metabolism of all body cells is regulated by _______.
43. The relatively constant internal environment of the body is maintained by _______.
1. Sensory and motor neurons of the peripheral nervous system transmit impulses between muscles and the
2. Which sequence correctly shows the path of sound transmission in the ear?
3. A person with a vitamin A deficiency may have night blindness. The glare from the headlights of an approaching car will temporarily reduce that person’s visual capacity. The primary structures associated with this change are the
Use the following information to answer the next three questions.
More than 4 000 Gulf War veterans complain of illness (Gulf War Syndrome). The veterans’ symptoms include joint pain, shortness of breath, attention and memory problems, and chronic fatigue. During the war, most of the veterans took anti-nerve-gas pills. These pills contain pyridostigmine bromide, a drug that inhibits cholinesterase. Pyridostigmine bromide is also used to treat patients with myasthenia gravis, an inherited disorder characterized by weakness of skeletal muscles.
4. The role of cholinesterase in neural transmission is to
5. Considering that the symptoms of Gulf War Syndrome include attention and memory problems, it is likely that pyridostigmine bromide has an effect on the
6. In myasthenia gravis, a malfunction of neuromuscular synapses occurs. The information presented above indicates that the muscular weakness associated with this disorder occurs because
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Scientists had long assumed that the brain could not produce new cells. However, two researchers at the University of Calgary have successfully produced new brain tissue by using an unspecialized brain cell known as a stem cell. This stem cell acts as a “mother” cell to produce healthy brain tissue, in vitro.
7. Before this research, the assumption that brain cells could not regenerate was based upon which characteristic of axons?
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Parkinson’s disease destroys certain neurons in the brain. One treatment for Parkinson’s disease is to transplant fetal brain tissue into a patient to replace neurons destroyed by the disease.
8. Which is a likely reason why fetal brain tissue, rather than brain tissue from an adult donor, is used to treat Parkinson’s disease?
9. Relative to inside of a neuron, the extracellular fluid immediately outside a resting neuron’s cell membrane is
10. Returning involuntary body functions to normal after a period of stress is the function of which division of the nervous system?
11. When adaptation of the eye occurs to view objects in a dark room,
12. Nerve impulse transmission continues along the nerve cell membrane as
13. The part of the ear directly responsible for stimulating the nerve endings that transmit sound impulses from the ear to the brain is the
14. Stimulation of an individual’s sympathetic nervous system in response to imminent danger leads to all of the following responses except
Use the following information to answer the next question.
Certain compounds known as opiates (opium, morphine, and codeine) are addictive drugs. Scientists have found that opiates work by binding to specific sites in the brain that interpret perceptions of pleasure and pain.
15. A likely explanation of how receptors in the human brain are stimulated by opiates is that opiates
16. When individuals participate in extreme sports, their neurons release more dopamine, which results in a pleasurable sensation because
17. What would happen if acetylcholine was released at a synapse, but no cholinesterase was present?
1. Twenty-five percent of the offspring of a certain pair of white sheep are black. If the white is dominant to black, what was the genotype of the parents?
2. In humans, wavy hair is dominant over straight hair. What possible genotypes and phenotypes can occur in the offspring where one parent is heterozygous for wavy hair and the other has straight hair?
3. Bronze turkeys have at least one dominant allele R. Red turkeys are homozygous for its recessive allele rr. Another dominant gene H produces normal feathers and the recessive genotype hh produces feathers lacking webbing, a condition termed hairy. In crosses between homozygous bronze, hairy birds and homozygous red normal feathers, what proportion of the F2 progeny will be:
4. In a certain organism, one chromatid contains the genes A and b. Its homologous chromatid contains a and B.
5. A cross between two sweet pea plants produced 39 plants with pink flowers (incomplete dominance), 18 with white flowers and 19 with red flowers. What are the phenotypes of the parents?
6. In humans, the sex-linked gene for normal blood clotting, H is dominant to the gene for hemophilia, h. A woman with normal blood clotting has four children: a normal son, a hemophiliac son and two normal daughters. The father has normal blood clotting. What is the probable genotype of each member of the family?
7. In sheep, crosses between homozygous earless and homozygous normal always result in an intermediate, small-eared condition. When a series of matings are made between F1 rams and ewes, 79 small-eared, 42 earless, and 37 normal progeny result. If one of the F2 small-eared individuals is mated with a normal partner, what is the chance of getting an abnormal lamb? an earless lamb?
8. Black coat cocker spaniels is determined by a dominant allele B and a brown coat color by its recessive allele b. Solid pattern is determined by the dominant allele of and independent chromosome, S, and spotted pattern by its recessive allele s. A solid male is mated to a solid brown female and produces a litter of six pups: two solid black, two solid brown, one black and white, one brown and white. Determine the genotypes of the parents
9. A normal-visions man of blood group A marries a normal visioned woman of blood group A. They have two children, a color-blind boy of blood group A and a normal visioned girl of blood group O. What were the genotypes of the parents?
10. Normal leg size in cattle is produced by the homozygous genotype DD. Short-legged cattle possess the heterozygous genotype, Dd. The homozygous genotype dd is lethal, producing grossly deformed dead calves. The presence of horns in cattle is governed by the recessive allele of another gene, p, the polled condition (absence of horns) is produced by its dominant allele, P. In matings between heterozygous polled, short legged cattle, what is the phenotypic ratio expected in the ADULT progeny?
11. In summer squash, white fruit color is dominant, W, and yellow fruit color is recessive, w. A dominant allele at another locus, S, produces disc shaped fruit, and its recessive allele, s, produces sphere-shaped fruit. If a true breeding white disc variety is crossed with a homozygous yellow sphere variety, the F1 are all white disc hybrids. If the F1 is allowed to mate at random, what would be the phenotypic ratio expected in the F2 generation?
12. The shape of radishes may be long LL, round L'L' or oval LL'. Color may be red, RR, white R'R' or purple RR'. If a long, white strain is crossed with a round, red stem, what phenotypic ratios are expected in the F2 progeny?
13. Suppose that alien genetics mimics human genetics. Purple eyes, P, are dominant to yellow eyes, p. Two purple-eyed aliens mate and produce six offspring. Four of them have purple eyes and two have yellow eyes. What are the genotypes of the parent? the phenotypes of the parents? What are the genotypes of the offspring?
14. Suppose two newborn babies were accidentally mixed up at the hospital, and there was a question of which baby belonged to which parents. From the following blood type, determine and explain which baby belongs to which parents:
15. A narrow reduced eye, B, is the dominant X linked condition in fruit flies. The full red eye is produced by its recessive allele, b. A homozygous wild-type female is mated to a reduced eye male. Determine the F1 and F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratios.
1. The sheep liver fluke is an organism that lives in the intestines, liver, brain, and lungs of sheep and causes tissue damage in these organs. Which statement best describes the likely effect of a severe infestation of sheep liver flukes on a sheep population?
2. In a randomly mating population of Drosophila, 4% of the flies have black bodies (an autosomal, recessive trait) and 96% have brown bodies. This population is assumed to be in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. If a researcher samples 10 000 Drosophila from this population, the number of flies expected to be homozygous dominant for body colour is
3. The relationship between humans and Plasmodium falciparum (The parasite that causes Malaria) is called
4. C.F.M. Synnerton, a naturalist in Zimbabwe, studied how eyespots on the wings of butterflies protected the butterflies from predation by sparrows. By moving its wings, the butterfly makes the eyespots resemble the eyes of an owl, a natural predator of sparrows. The presence of eyespots on the wings of butterflies is an example of
5. In winter, snowshoe hares found in Jasper National Park create pathways in the snow between feeding and resting sites. These travel lanes are then used by porcupines, making the porcupines' movement through deep snow easier.
What relationship exists between the snowshoe hare and the porcupine?
1. Meiosis occurs when..
2. One difference between mitosis and meiosis is that, during mitosis,
3. The chromosome Number of a Horse, Equus caballus is 66 (2n). Starting from a single cell, spermatogenesis in horses produces
4. Which expression of chromosome content represents somatic cells in people with trisomy disorders such as Down syndrome?
5. To obtain all the representative DNA of an organism, it would be necessary to collect only
6. One aspect of meiosis that is different from mitosis, is that normally by the end of meiosis
7. As cells age, there is an increase in DNA damage and a decrease in DNA repair processes. The initial effect is
8. Certain disorders result if an extra chromosome is present in all nucleated cells of the body (trisomy) or if a chromosome is missing from all nucleated cells of the body (monosomy). These disorders arise because of nondisjunction, a malfunction that occurs during
9. DNA is structurally different from RNA in that DNA
10. Analysis of a DNA sample showed that 15% of the nitrogen-base molecules present were adenine molecules. This sample would likely contain
11. The nucleus of a human oocyte would normally be
1. RU-486 is a drug that inhibits the action of progesterone. Hormones called prostaglandins cause the cervix to soften and dilate. Administering RU-486 and prostaglandins to a woman during pregnancy would likely cause
2. A home pregnancy test that is positive reveals the presence of a hormone in urine. This hormone is only present in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which hormone is detected by this home pregnancy test?
3. At puberty, the LH in the human male directly
4. If a pregnant woman failed to produce oxytocin, what would be the result?
5. During pregnancy, menstruation is prevented by the action of
6. A poorly developed uterine lining mainly affects the
7. Which hormone, if given to the egg donor, would promote the growth and development of ova?
8. An unusual and rare form of the disease cystic fibrosis results in the absence of the vas deferens in males. When this occurs, infertility results because of
9. During the process of implantation, the enzymes secreted by the
10. Microscopic examination has revealed protective layers surrounding the oocyte. The first sperm to reach the oocyte is usually not the one to fertilize it. The reason this first sperm may not fertilize the oocyte is that
11. In humans, the temperature within the scrotum is usually
12. The onset of labour at the end of pregnancy is caused partly by a decreased level of
13. Some contraceptives, such as condoms, prevent fertilization. Fertilization usually occurs in the structure labeled
14. Another contraceptive, the birth control pill, causes negative feedback on the pituitary, which prevents the release of eggs. Typically, the hormones in the birth control pill are similar to
15. Ingestion of a plant called skunk cabbage by pregnant sheep has been found to cause severe birth defects and to delay birth for several weeks. A reasonable hypothesis is that skunk cabbage contains a chemical that
16. The nucleus of a human oocyte would normally be
17. Infertility patients are advised to monitor their urine for the presence of a hormone that will signal ovulation. This hormone is
18. During the first three days of development, the human embryo obtains nutrients and energy from the
19. Premature infants born at 24-weeks gestation face a wide spectrum of physiological problems. These problems arise because prior to the third trimester of pregnancy, fetuses
20. The presence of a particular hormone in urine indicates that pregnancy has occurred. This hormone is secreted by the
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